Psalms 119

Jacob Law

Jacob Law

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Would like to hear why Psalms 119 has words before some of the verses in some King James Bibles and not in other King James Bibles?
Know why they are there, but why does other King James Bible not have them there; if those words are taken or added ?
Does anyone know any history of this Psalms 119 questions?
 
Psalm 119 is an alphabetical acrostic divided into sections based on the Hebrew alphabet. Aleph is the first letter of the Hebrew alphabet, Tau the last. SwordSearcher has transliterations of the letters spelled out. I have seen some KJVs use the actual Hebrew letters instead, and some that have both forms. I am not aware of any other differences here, and I would regard a printing without the letters (either transliterated or in Hebrew form) as being error. They certainly belong there.
 
Lamentations is a similar acrostic. Chapters 1,2,4,5 each have 22 verses that start with aleph and end with tavh. Chapter 3 has 66 verses going from aleph to tavh in threes. There are other example in the Bible. It's a type of Hebrew poetry.
 
That's really cool! I didn't know that - learned something new... I need to pay more attention! Thanks!!!💖
 
Brandon Staggs said:
Psalm 119 is an alphabetical acrostic divided into sections based on the Hebrew alphabet. Aleph is the first letter of the Hebrew alphabet, Tau the last. SwordSearcher has transliterations of the letters spelled out. I have seen some KJVs use the actual Hebrew letters instead, and some that have both forms. I am not aware of any other differences here, and I would regard a printing without the letters (either transliterated or in Hebrew form) as being error. They certainly belong there.
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Was wonder why that it would be consider an error if it wasn't included? Was looking were the words (or "letter") was noted in relationship to the verses of the scripture and it is outside the number's denotations of the verses; more like a commentary or a title.
 
Another question is relationship to Psalms 119's acrostic are the other notes like at the end of Romans (Written to the Romans from Corinthus, and sent by Phebe servant of the church at Cenchrea.) Are these to be consider scripture of commentary or end notes?
 
By Rev. M. H. Watts

Have you ever wondered about those explanatory notes which appear at the end of some of the Epistles? At the end of Romans, for example, we read: "Written to the Romans from Corinthus, and sent by Phebe servant of the church at Cenchrea". What are we to make of these notes?

The subscriptions are thought to have been added about the middle of the 5th century by Euthalius, Bishop of Sulca in Egypt. Thomas Hartwell Horne says this man was "either grossly ignorant, or grossly inattentive".1 Professor Patrick Fairbairn says, "the subscriptions...are oftener wrong than right".2

Several of these subscriptions are simply and clearly erroneous:-

  1. The First Epistle to the Corinthians is stated to have been written from "Philippi", even though the Apostle writes in 1Co 16:8 that he intends to "tarry at Ephesus until Pentecost" and then, in verse 1Co 16:19, sends greetings from "the churches of Asia". According to Dr. T. C. Edwards, this subscription has no manuscript support older than the 8th century.3
  2. The Epistle to the Galatians is said to be written from "Rome", but this cannot be right, for the Apostle Paul expresses surprise, in chapter 1 verse 6, that they were so 'soon" removed from Gospel Truth, but it was at least ten years after the Galatians' conversion that Paul was in Rome.
  3. The Epistles to the Thessalonians are said to be written "from Athens", but they were clearly written at Corinth. Silvanus and Timothy, who are mentioned in the salutations (1Th 1:1; 2Th 1:1), joined Paul at Corinth according to Ac 18:1,5.
  4. The First Epistle to Timothy carries a subscription which cannot possibly be correct or even early, because it states the Epistle was written from "Laodicea, which is the chiefest city of Phrygia Pacatiana" but (to our knowledge) Paul never was at Laodicea and, in the Epistle itself, Paul writes of having left Ephesus for Macedonia (1.3), so it was apparently written from some place like Philippi. Furthermore, the country of Phrygia was not divided into two provinces - Pacatiana (or Phrygia Prima) and Phrygia Secunda - until the 4th century. The subscription must therefore have been written after this time.
  5. The Epistle to Titus is said to have been written from "Nicopolis of Macedonia" but there was no Nicopolis belonging to that Province (but there was one in Epirus and in Cilicia). Moreover, when Paul says (3:12) that his intention was to spend the winter "there" (i.e., in Nicopolis), he clearly was not in that particular place at the time of writing. The further statement in the subscription that "it was written to Titus, ordained the first bishop of the church of the Cretians" (as Timothy, apparently, was "first bishop of the church of the Ephesians" - 2 Timothy) clearly reflects the 'sub-apostolic" emergence of "Diocesan Episcopacy". [This is the later human invention of a church hierarchy without Scriptural warrant - TTW.]
  6. The Epistle to the Hebrews, apparently (from the subscription), was written "from Italy by Timothy", but this is wholly without foundation and plainly contradicts the inspired writer's own words in 13:23 - "Know ye that our brother Timothy is set at liberty; with whom, if he come shortly, I will see you".
Dr. Debra Anderson [of the Trinitarian Bible Society] writes:4 "Regarding the subscripts being in the Textus Receptus, they go back to Erasmus (we have a 1551 printing of his text in our library). They were, according to Scrivener, "appended to St. Paul's Epistles in many manuscripts. In the best copies they are somewhat shorter in form, but in any shape they do no credit to the care or skill of their author, whoever he may be".5 The earliest original-hand manuscript I know of that has the subscripts is Codex H (6th century), although Sinaiticus and Vaticanus both have titles and subscripts - these added later by a different hand"....
 
Thanks you, that was interesting, regardless of the exact truth of these subscriptions, hearing added, or even they come from a translator as famous as Erasmus there is pause at looking at the reasonability of them. What conclusion we can conclude is that they seem to be obviously outside the lines we know are scriptures, (no verse numbers) if we are to believe our own eyes anyway. The pause is it is error to not include them (as Brandon suggests "They certainly belong there") it makes an uncomfortable dilemma to one's purity and skeptically to "ye hath God said" Not wishing to diminish or add to the scriptures in the purest form finds that reason to reasoning questions even the purposes, like the Psalms 119's (acrostic) and the (subscriptions) of the books in the New Testament: Why would the language turn to us at the end of the world (1 Corinthians 10:11) ensamples that do not admonish us, or why the added cryptic infusion? It's like head candy that lends to knowledge or clouds without water, which it really is the suspensions that doesn't redeem the time at hand, where is the authority of these additions? Obviously, we could play the studious researcher for some gold nuggets for value, yet it begs the question of the enemy's goals and purposes to hinder the word of God by adding or taking from his words, this is the dilemma we are considering and still sort on pause with it; "to copy and paste or not to copy and paste" some questionable historical reality that again makes the narrative to hesitant ensamples and to establish what? Thank you everyone and if anyone has some other thoughts, we would love to hear them.
 
wsbones said:
Lamentations is a similar acrostic. Chapters 1,2,4,5 each have 22 verses that start with aleph and end with tavh. Chapter 3 has 66 verses going from aleph to tavh in threes. There are other example in the Bible. It's a type of Hebrew poetry.
Click to expand...
Proverbs 31:10-31, The Virtuous Woman, is another acrostic, each of the 22 verses starting with the Hebrew letters, aleph to tavh.
 
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